At 09:01 AM 12/24/00 -0800, Bruce wrote:
> Not to my mind. My router, having two Ethernet ports, must have an IP
>address for each of those ports. In order to be a part of the subnet on the
>Cisco side, the port attached to it must have an IP address out of the
>63.226 block I've been assigned. Ergo, that address is not available for a
>machine.
But the router actually can use the *same* IP address on both sides. This
is running in what is known as 'unnumbered' mode. Since the diagram looks
like this:
+-------------+
| |
ISP +----------+ A Router B +-------> LAN
| |
+-------------+
Both interfaces A and B do not need unique IP addresses. They need only
one, since everything coming in port B that isn't for the local subnet goes
out port A and everything from the ISP is logically appearing at port B.
The the router to ISP path is a point-to-point link this works great.
--Chuck
Received on Sun Dec 24 2000 - 11:28:14 GMT
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: Fri Oct 10 2014 - 23:32:50 BST